Soal dan Pembahasan UN Bahasa Inggris SMA IPS 2009-2010 ...

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I liked Five ire-ighters were busy at the scene. all the art, but Ryan didn't like the modern art Lieut. John carey of t...

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GENIUS EDUKASI

SOAL DAN PEMBAHASAN BAHASA INGGRIS

UJIAN NASIONAL SMA IPS

2009/2013

UJIAN NASIONAL Tahun Pelajaran 2009/2010

BAHASA INGGRIS lIsTenIng seCTIon In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part. Part I Questions: 1 to 3. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues or questions spoken in English. The questions or dialogues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. after you listen to the dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers, and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question. You will hear: Man

: What do you want for your birthday present, Mike? A watch, a bicycle, a mobile phone or a Power Ranger robot? Woman : I’d would rather you bought me a Portable Play Station 3. Narrator : What did Mike want for his birthday present? A. A robot B. A watch c. A bicycle D. A mobile phone e. a play station 3

Sample answer A

B

C

D

E

The best answer to this question is “a play station 3”. Therefore, you should choose answer e.

1.

A. How to use email. B. c. D. E.

2.

Internet usage. Receiving emails. Voice mail. communication.

B

A

A. He doesn’t have a driver’s license yet. B. c. D. E.

3.



E D

His friend will drive him. He is seventeen years old. His mother will use it. He drives carelessly.

A. The man takes the bus to work. B. The man wants the woman to go with him. c. The woman prefers driving in the rush hour. D. The woman wants to ride to work with man. E. The man has to stand on the bus if he takes it to work.

C



A

B

D

C

E



Part II Questions: 4 to 6.

A

directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues or monologues spoken in English. The dialogues or monologues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you listen to the dialogue or monologue, look at the five pictures provided in your test book, and decide which one would be the most suitable with the dialogue or monologue you have heard.

D

B

C E

Part III Questions: 7 to 11. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some incomplete dialogue spoken in English, followed by five responses, also spoken in English. The dialogues and the responses

will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. You have to choose the best response to each question. Now listen to a sample question: Man : I’ve got bad news about my test. Woman : What? You failed again? Man :… Narrator : What will the man most likely reply? A. Let me try again. B.

Don’t worry. I’m fine.

c. Sorry, I’ve disappointed you. D. Never mind. You’ve done your best. E.

I’d like to apologize for my failure.

The best answer to the question “you failed again?” is choice c. Therefore, you should choose answer c. Sample answer A

B

C

D

E

7.

Mark your answer on your answer sheet

8.

Mark your answer on your answer sheet

9.

Mark your answer on your answer sheet

10. Mark your answer on your answer sheet 11. Mark your answer on your answer sheet

Part IV Questions: 12 to 15. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you hear the monologue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. 12. A. B. c. D. E.

Octopus Rhinoceros Platypus Mosquito Hippopotamus

13. A. 0.7 to 2.4 kg B. 0.7 to 2.5 kg c. 0.7 to 2.6 kg D. 0.7 to 2.7 kg E. 0.7 to 2.8 kg 14. A. 16 B. 48 c. 56 D. 60 E. 66 15. A. B. c. D. E.

Fine clear Rainy Terrible cloudy

This is the end of the listening section

readIng seCTIon This text is for question 16. Dear Sue, Please accept our sympathies on your daughter’s death, Linda. Our thoughts and prayers are with you during this difficult time. Please know that we are here for you. With love, Agnes, Kathy, and Bruce.

16. What is the message about? A. B. c. D. E.

Expressing condolences. Expressing happiness. Expressing surprises. Expressing prayers. Expressing love.

This text is for questions 17 to 19. Dear Mr. Shoji, We have reviewed your applications for credit, and it is our pleasure to inform you that an account has been opened for your company. Please feel free to use your account as often as you wish. A descriptive brochure is attached which outlines the terms and conditions upon which this account has been opened. Should your credit requirements change, or should you have any questions regarding to your new account, call this office and ask to speak to one of our account representatives.

When you call, please have your account number available, in order that we might have quick access to your file. Best regards,

17. What is the letter about? A.

An application to open a current account. B. An application to open a saving account. c. Requirements to open a bank account. D. A customer new charge credit card. E. A company credit account approval. 18. What is needed to have quick access to your file? A. B. c. D. E.

Account representative. Descriptive brochure. credit requirement. Account password. Account number.

19. “Please feel free to use your account as often as you wish.” (Paragraph 2) What does the sentence mean? A. B.

The account is free of charge. Mr. Shoji is free to account his money. c. Mr. Shoji wishes to use his account freely. D. Mr. Shoji can open his account quite often. E. Mr. Shoji can use his account anytime he needs.

The following text is for numbers 20 to 22. Hi, Guys! Our neighborhood will hold a Fund Raising Activity next month. It is intended to help victims of the landslide which happened

D. Ms. Maryam will give you question freely. E. Ms. Maryam has questions to ask.

yesterday. Everyone who is interested in this activity, please join us. You are also invited to donate your used clothes. If you have any

The following text is for questions 23 and 24.

questions, please feel free to contact Ms. Maryam as chief program coordinator at her

BalI’s neWesT aParTMenT deVeloPMenT

house from 07.00 a.m. – 03 p.m. Monday to Friday. committee

20. What is the announcement about? A. B. c. D. E.

A neighborhood’s activity. Ms. Maryam’s program. Used clothes donation. Victims of a landslide. Fund raising activity.

21. Where can Ms. Maryam accept her neighbors’ question? A. B. c. D. E.

At her house. at her office. At the neighborhood. At the landslide area. at the committee office.

22. If you have any questions, please feel free to contact Ms. Maryam. This sentence has the same meaning as … A.

Ms. Maryam is always ready to give information you need. B. Ms. Maryam is always ready to ask your questions. c. You are not charged if you contact Ms. Maryam.

a dreaM BeCoMes realITY Sunwel Beach Residences Ketewel – Bali Prime Property – Prime Location – Prime Investment Only 5 minutes away from Sanur, directly at the beach All apartments with view to the sea, full hotel amenities Large pools, spa, fitness, sauna, & steam, Parking, Restaurant For complete information please visit our website Invitation – stimulation – temptation Where: Hotel Mulia Senayan, Jakarta (Leatris Room) When: 15th and 16th of January 2010 (15.00 – 21.00 WIB) For reservation: PT. Umadamai Phone: +62 361 759 958 or email: For every purchase prior to 31.01.2010 we will invite the buyer for the GroundBreaking-ceremony -Flight from Jakarta to Bali and a night in a luxury villa FREE

23. The text talks about … A. Sunwel Beach Residences Ketewel. B. Bali’s apartment development. c. A dream becomes reality. D. Hotel Mulia Senayan. E. Prime property. 24. Which of the following is not found in the advertisement? A. B. c. D. E.

Large pools Restaurant Website Fitness Spa

To his surprise, the farmer found the box full of precious stones. When his wife saw them, she decided that she too deserved a reward, and she went to see the birds. The birds gave her a little casket; but this one was full of devils. The devils jumped on her as soon as she opened the casket and chased her away. Left alone, the farmer went to live near his friend, the bird. There he built a hut of perfumed wood; and the birds decorated it with flowers of every kind. 25. Which of the following statements do you agree with? A. B.

The following text is for questions 25 to 28. A farmer came across a bird with a broken wing. He picked up, took it home and looked his wife after it lovingly, even complained bitterly though about his wasting too much time on the creature. After some time, the wing mended and, because the bird did not want the farmer to have kept on arguing with his wife all the time, it decided to go back to its nest. When the farmer discovered that the bird was gone, he was so upset that he went out to look for it. Eventually, he found it again, and was greeted happily by the whole family of the bird. As a sign of their thanks for his care and attention, the birds gave him a little box, and told him not to open it until he got home.

The farmer chased his wife away. The farmer lived happily with his wife. c. The farmer’s wife took care of the bird. D. The bird was very thankful to the farmer. E. The farmer’s wife was a very kind woman.

26. The farmer’s new hut was …. A. B. c. D. E.

well furnished built by the birds a gift from the bird decorated luxuriously built of perfumed wood

27. What do we learn from the text? A. B. c. D. E.

A gift shows kindness. Sufferings bring happiness. Arguing makes you distressed. A good deed deserves a reward. Having no heart makes you isolated.

28. What is the main information discussed in the third paragraph? A. The birds left the farmer. B. The birds welcomed the farmer. c. The farmer got a little casket from the birds. D. The farmer was so angry and went out to find the birds. E. The farmer was happy having got a box of precious stones. The following text is for questions 29 to 31. YONKeRS, Nov 12th. a four alarm fire damaged 14 stores today in the cross county Shopping center, the largest shopping center in Westchester country. Two fire investigators said the blaze apparently started in a pile of cardboard cartons at the rear of a shoe store and spread through a utilities duct above the 13 other stores. The fire started at 4.40 p.m. and was declared under control at 6.14 p.m. The center is on the cross country Parkway at the Gov. Thomas E. Dewey Thruway. Five fire-fighters were busy at the scene. Lieut. John carey of the Yonkers Arson Squad said the cause of the fire was under investigation. 29. The text mainly tells us about …. A. B. c. D. E.

the Yonkers Arson Squad the blaze at a shoe store a fire in the shopping center a shopping center in the cross country the largest shopping center in Westchester county

30. The fire has lasted about …. A. B. c. D. E.

half an hour fourty five minutes one hour one and a half hours two hours

31. How many investigators and fire fighters were involved in the scene? A. B. c. D. E.

Two Seven Twelve Thirteen Fourteen

The following text is for questions 32 to 34. Ryan, my roommate, and I had a great weekend. Last Saturday we got up early and had a big breakfast. Then we took the bus to go downtown and went to an art museum. The museum opened at nine o’clock and we stayed there all morning. We saw some beautiful paintings. We had a guide who explained everything to us. I liked all the art, but Ryan didn’t like the modern art very much. I bought copies of two paintings. I’m going to put them on the wall of my bedroom. At one o’clock, we were hungry so we had lunch at the museum cafeteria. After lunch, we took a walk in the park near the museum. We went home at five o’clock. We were very tired, but we had a good time. On Sunday we stayed home and studied.

32. What did the writer and his roommate do last weekend? A. B. c. D.

They had a big dinner. They went to an art museum. They watched people painting. They worked part time as a guide.

E.

They worked part time in a cafeteria.

33. The main idea of the second paragraph is …. A.

the museum only displayed modern art B. a guide accompanied the visitors c. the writer liked all the art displayed at the museum D. the guide helped visitors to buy the paintings displayed E. Ryan and his roommate liked all the beautiful paintings at the museum 34. Which of the following you don’t agree with about Ryan? A. Ryan liked all the displayed. B. Ryan was the writer’s roommate. c. Ryan and the writer had a great weekend. D. Ryan and the writer went to an art museum. E. Ryan and the writer had lunch at the museum cafeteria. answer questions 35 to 38 based to the following text. house husband’s heart riks Most people assume that life in the rat race is bad for your health. But reversing

the traditional gender roles, being a house husband is a stressful business, according to the latest research by American scientists. By giving up their jobs in order to become house husbands, men increase their risk of heart attack or coronary disease by as much as 82%, according to research based on 10 year study of 2.500 people in Boston, USA. According to Dr. Elaine Eaker, they to the problem is that some men became stressed about performing a role not traditionally assign to them by society. Men who stay at home tend not to have the same levels of support from friends and family as women do the same. Jack O’Sullivan, of the Father’s Direct group, was quoted as saying: “Society expects the main career should be a woman and society is structured around that. Day care is called mother and toddler groups and some men feel awkward about belonging to those groups. Professor Gary cooper, a psychologist at the University of Manchester, said many men tend to underestimate the task of caring for a family. He said ‘Most men think being a house husband involves putting on a bit of washing, taking the kids to school and then putting their feet up with a cup of coffee. They are crazy. Most men are not used to performing a variety of activities simultaneously – the kind of multi-tasking which is second nature to most women. It is estimated that men have taken over the main homemaker’s role in one in seven homes, as increasing numbers of women become the main breadwinner. The study also found that women in high-powered jobs were more likely to develop heart disease than those in more junior positions.

35. The main idea of the first paragraph is … A.

People living in the rat-race tend to have heart attacks. B. The research on house-husbands health involved 2.500 people. c. Scientists did some research on the people’s health living in Boston. D. House husbands have understandable reasons why they gave up their jobs. E. The result of the research showed that house husbands tend to have heart attacks. 36. “Some men became stressed about performing a role not traditionally assign to them by society.” (Paragraph 2) The statement above is the result of research done by …. A. B. c. D. E.

a psychologist Jack O’Sullivan Dr. Elaine Eaker an American scientist Professor Gary cooper

37. The purpose of the text is …. A. B.

to describe what a house husband is to persuade readers not to become a house husband c. to report the result of a research carried on by Dr. Elaine Eaker D. to explain to readers why house husbands are subjects to heart attack E. to inform readers that 82% of house husbands suffer from heart attack

38. Some house husbands become stressed because ….

A. B. c. D. E.

they are jobless they earn less than their wives most people do not respect them they do not join the day care groups they are not used to doing house keeping

The following text is for questions 39 to 42. The houses of the Toraja The ethnic groups in the mountain regions of southwest and central Sulawesi (celebes) are known by the name of Toraja, which has come to mean “those who live upstream” or “those who live in the mountains”. Their name is in fact derived from the word Raja, which in Sanskrit means “king”. The society is hierarchically structured: the noblemen are called rengnge, the ordinary people to makaka, and the slaves to kaunan; birth determines which rank a person will occupy. The distinctive features of the traditional houses (tongkonan) of the Toraja are the “buffalo horns”, the roof design and the rich decoration on the walls. The buffalo is a symbol of status, courage, strength, and fighting spirit. Designed as a representation of the universe, the tongkonan is constructed in three parts: the upper world (the roof), the world of humans (the middle of the building), and the underworld (the space under the floor). The

highly distinctive roofs constructed by the Toraja have given rise to various ingenious interpretations. certainly the roof is something of deep significance for the Toraja, and even today they build “modern” (in other words houses built with cement) houses with such roofs. 39. What is the text about? A. The culture of Toraja. B. The society of Toraja. c. The distinctive features of traditional houses. D. The description of a traditional house of Toraja. E. The ethnic groups of southwest and central Sulawesi. 40. “…, and even today they build modern …” (Paragraph 3) The underlined word refers to …. A. B. c. D. E.

Raja rengnge society Toraja people mountain regions

41. What are the ordinary people commonly called? A. Tongkonan B. Makaka c. celebes

D. Rengnge E. Kaunan

42. Which of the following does not symbolize a buffalo? A. Status B. courage c. Strength

D. E.

cowardice Fighting Spirit

The following text is for questions 43 to 46. Antibiotic is a drug produced by certain microbes. Antibiotics destroy other microbes that damage human tissues. They are used to treat a wide variety of diseases, including gonorrhea, tonsillitis, and tuberculosis. Antibiotics are sometimes called ‘wonder drugs’ because they can cure diseases such as meningitis, pneumonia, and scarlet fever. But when the antibiotics are overused, or misused, these drugs make a person sensitive being attacked by a superbug. Antibiotics do not always distinguish between harmless and dangerous microbes. If a drug destroys too many harmless microorganism, the pathogenic ones –the dangerous microbes- will have a greater chance to multiply. This situation often leads to the development of a new infection called suprainfection. Extensive use of some antibiotics may damage organs and tissues. For example, streptomycin, which is used to treat tuberculosis, has caused kidney damage and deafness. Resistance to antibiotics may be acquired by pathogenic microbes. The resistant microbes transfer genetic material to nonresistant microbes and cause them to become resistant. During antibiotic treatment, nonresistant microbes are destroyed, but resistant types survive and multiply. To avoid the side effect of antibiotics, you’d better not urge your doctor to prescribe antibiotics. Keep in mind that antibiotics are only useful for bacterial infections and have no effect on viruses, so they cannot be used for chicken pox, measles, and other viral diseases.

43. Which diseases cannot be cured by antibiotics? A. Tonsillitis B. Meningitis c. chicken pox

D. Tuberculosis E. Scarlet fever

44. What are discussed in paragraph two and four? A.

Both paragraphs describe how antibiotics work. B. Both paragraphs tell about the effects of misusing antibiotics. c. Both paragraphs explain how antibiotics damage organs and tissues. D. Paragraph two tells what causes the pathogenic microbes multiply and paragraph fours tells how the unresistant microbes become resistant. E. Paragraph two tells how antibiotics destroy harmless microbes and paragraph four describes how the pathogenic microbes transfer genetic material to non-resistant microbes. 45. choose one from the following which is not the effect of using antibiotics improperly? A.

Organs and tissues are damaged.

micro-organisms B. The pathogenic microbes multiply.are c. destroyed. Harmless D. Pathogenic microbes become nonresistant. E. New infection which is called suprainfection develops.

46. “Antibiotics do not always distinguish between harmless and dangerous microbes.” (Paragraph 2) The underlined word means …. A.

vary

D.

contradict

B. compare c. correlate

E.

differentiate

This text is for questions 47 to 50. Should performance enhancing drugs be accepted in sports? The issues of using drugs to enhance athlete’s performance is controversial. Those who agree to the use of drugs in enhancing performance say that most top players in all sports take drugs to train harder and feel no pain during play. The trainers, sports doctors, nutritionists, physiotherapists, and managers of the big names make sure banned substances are taken at the safest and most efficient levels. The main effect of banning such substances has turned performers and their coaches into liars and cheaters. On the other hand, some still believe that performance enhancing drugs in sport should be banned. Performance enhancing drugs are not only prohibited because they violate the spirit of sport but because they can damage the health of athletes. I think the idea of allowing them in sports could lead to a situation whereby sportsmen and women are used as human guinea pigs for a constant flow of new, unregulated substances.

47. What argument is given by those who disagree with the use of performance enhancing drugs? A. B. c. D. E.

Athletes health is badly affected. Guinea pigs are awfully needed. Athletes consume more drugs. Athletes obey the rules. Athletes perform better.

48. According to the proponents of performance enhancing drugs, the effect of banning them is that performers become …. A. B. c. D. E.

losers winners cheaters hooligans supporters

49. What is the writer’s intention to write the text? A.

To persuade readers to agree with the issue. B. To influence readers to oppose the issue. c. To describe performance enhancing drugs. D. To entertain readers with the issue. E. To expose readers with the issue. 50. How does the writer feel about the performance enhancing drugs? A. B. c. D. E.

Neutral Positive Negative Indefinite Pessimistic

UJIAN NASIONAL Tahun Pelajaran 2010/2011

BAHASA INGGRIS lIsTenIng seCTIon In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part. Part I Questions: 1 to 4. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and questions spoken in English. The question and the dialogue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. after you listen to the dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers, and decide which one would be the best answers to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question. You will hear: Boy : Do you use the internet very often? Girl : Yes, I do. I use it for communication. Boy : How do you communicate with it? Girl : I send and receive emails, and I speak with my friends using voice mail. What is the main topic of the conversation? A.

How to use email.

B.

Internet usage.

c.

Receiving emails.

D.

Voice mail.

E.

communication.

Sample answer A

B

c

D

E

The best answer to this question is “Internet usage”. Therefore, you should choose answer B.

1.

A. B. c. D. E.

Having a journey for a week. Going shopping. Going swimming. Beautiful scenery. Discussing holiday plans.

Now listen to a sample question. Man : Where are we going to stay? Woman : At the Sun Hotel, near the beach. Man : Why there? Woman : ....

2.

A. B. c. D. E.

She will go to school. She will go to her factory. She will go to the hospital. She will go to the man’s office. She will go to a department store.

What will the woman most likely reply? A. Stay there. B. It provides excellent service. c. There’s a hotel there. D. It’s on the beach.

3.

a. B. c. D. E.

She has broken her own promises. She cannot cook the dinner well. She is going to a concert. She practises some sounds. She will perform in the concert.

The best answer to the question is choice B “It provides excellent service”. Therefore, you should choose answer B. 5.

Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

A. B. c. D. E.

The short red one. The short green one. The short black one. The long red one. The long green one.

6.

Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

7.

Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

4.

Part II Questions: 5 to 7. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some incomplete dialogues spoken in English, followed by four responses, also spoken in English. The dialogues and the responses will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. You have to choose the best response to each question.

Part III Questions: 8 to 11. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues or monologues spoken in English. The dialogues or monologues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you listen to the dialogue or monologue, look at the five pictures provided in your test book, and decide which one would be the most suitable with the dialogue or monologue you have heard.



10. A.

D.

B.

E.

A

B. c.

c.

D.

11. A.

D.

B.

E.

c.

E.

9.

A.

B.

c.

D.

E.

Part IV Questions: 12 to 15. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you hear the monologue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.

12. A.

An actor.

B. c. D. E.

Harry Potter. Popular book series. Literary Agent. Daniel Jacob Radcliffe.

13. a.

Being born in england.

16. “It is equally important to make it as realistic as ....” The underlined word refers to .... A. acting B. a play c. costum

B. Buying a popular book series. c. Playing Harry Potter. D. His mother being a casting Agent. E. 14. A. B. c. D. E. 15. A. B. c. D. E.

His father being a Literary Agent. Over the head. Around the waist. Outside the aircraft. In the back of the seat. Under the seat.

D. prop E. a story

17. What is the text about? A. The writer’s complaint to the actors. B. The direction of making good acting. c. Steps on how to make a play interesting. D. Advice to make the play realistic a nd interesting. E. A motivation to make the actors work harder. The following text is for questions 18 and 19.

Table. To all Third grade students

The life jacket. Mobile phones. The attached light. Tapes around the waist.

All library books have to be returned on the twenty-second of May, 2009. They should

This is the end of the listening section

be covered with non-colorful wrapping plastic. Lost books must be replaced with the ones of similar subjects. Fine will be charged to the

readIng seCTIon

late return of the books. Students who have

The following text is for questions 16 and 17.

to be submitted to the administration officers.

handed on all books will get receipts that have Library Staff

Good acting and good story can make a play interesting. It is equally important to make it as realistic as possible with suitable costumes, props, and sets. Be creative but don’t forget to have fun. Good Luck Socy

18. What is informed on the announcement? A. A request to return library books. B. The subjects of the library books. c. A compulsory to replace lost books. D. The library administration officers. E. Submission of receipts.

19. What will happen if the book you borrowed is lost? A. B.

You will get receipts. It should be covered by non-colorful plastic. c. The librarian will be fined by a certain amount of money. D. You should cover with wrapping plastic. E. It should be replaced with a similar book. The following text is for questions 20 to 22. effeCTIVe MICro organIsMs 4 organIC ferMenTaTIon BaCTerIa To InCrease CaTTle ProdUCTIVITY EM-4 is a mixture of micro-organisms that gives the benefit for cattle growth and product. Usage: 1. Decrease smell pollution. 2. Balance mutual micro-organisms. 3. Increase quality and quantity of cattle product. How to use: 1. To get satisfying result, dissolve 1cc EM-4 per litre water every day. 2. Spray 1 cc EM per litre of water every week on the floor, wall, and manure. Agent: PT. Songgolangit Persada, Jakarta Distributor: Jl. Ki Hajar Dewantara 46 Jakarta Phone: (021) 7894529

20. This text tells us about .... A. B. c. D. E.

organism fermentation cattle product contact address the use of EM-4

21. One of the benefits of the product is .... A. for growing cattle bacteria B. for increasing smell pollution c. for producing cattle manure and organic fermentation bacteria D. for increasing micro-organisms E. for increasing quality and quantity for cattle product 22. What will you do to get satisfying result? A.

Dissolve 1 cc EM-4 every two days. B. Dissolve 4 cc EM-1 every week. c. Dissolve 1 cc EM-4 every week. D. Dissolve 4 cc EM-1 per day. E. Dissolve 1 cc EM-4 everyday.

per litre of water per litre of water per litre of water per litre of water per litre of water

The following text is for questions 23 to 26. Kang chol Hwan was born into a loyal family that had once lived in the large Korean community of Japan. In Kyoto, his grandfather had been supporter of Kim II Sung, North Korean’s Great Leader since 1945. In 1961 the grandfather returned with his family to North Korea and had important government post.

Within months, however, he was complaining to friends that North Korea was not the country he had expected. He was shocked to see so much poverty, which he eventually came to blame on the government’s stifling grip on the economy. One morning in July 1977, when Kang was nine, his grandfather left for work and never returned. A few weeks later, seven plain clothes security guard stormed into Kang’s house “Your grandfather betrayed the fatherland,” one of them stated” you must be punished.” Kang’s parents and grandmother sobbed as they forced to pack their belongings into two army trucks. The family was driven off, but Kang’s mother was left behind, “Spared” because her own father was regarded as a revolutionary hero. That was the last Kang ever saw her. (Inside North Korean’s Gulag, by David Tracey) 23. What was a reason for Kang’s grandfather never returned to Kang’s house? A. B. c. D. E.

A supporter of Kim II Sung. Accused of betraying North Korea. Regarded as hero. As an important person in Korea. Force Kang’s family to leave their homeland.

24. What is mainly discussed in the last paragraph? A. B.

The last minutes Kang gathered together with his mother. The day Kang ever saw his grandma and grandpa.

c. The moment Kang’s father was regarded as a hero. D. The last day Kang’s parents and his grandma sobbed. E. The sad moment when Kang’s parents meet grandma. 25. Why did Kang’s grandfather disappear? A.

He left for work and went somewhere else. B. He returned to North Korea. c. He was supporter of Kim II Sung. D. He went to the government’s office. E. He was kidnapped and punished by security guards. 26. A few weeks later, seven plain clothes security guard stormed into Kang’s house. The underlined word has the same meaning as .... A. B. c. D. E.

destroyed attacked knocked involved knotted

The following text is for questions 27 to 31. Anybody who is over the age of six knows that there is nowhere safe for skateboarders to skate. This prevents young people from enjoying an active, energetic, and adventurous pastime. Just watch a local street for a short while and note the steady stream of skaters speeding up and down the footpaths. Toddlers can be

trampled on and old ladies can be knocked down as they struggle home carrying their cat food from supermarkets. Thunderous rattles are heard on our main roads each night as skaters travel without lights and without signs to oncoming cars. Skateboarding is a serious sport that improves young people’s health. It increases fitness, improves balance and strengthens the joints in knees and ankles. Although it appears to be a solo sport, when groups practice together and compete to perform stunts or runs they form firm friendships. Young people should be prevented from becoming overweight couch potatoes. If they are actively involved in skating. They do not smoke, take drugs or break laws for fun. Kids will always seek thrills and excitement. They need to practice their 180s, 360s, and Ollie’s free from restrictions. We must build skate parks in the suburbs so that streets are safe for small children and senior citizens and skaters have spaces where they can race, chase, speed, and soar towards the sun. 27. Where do the kids usually ride their skateboard? A. B. c. D. E.

In the main roads and foot paths. In front of the supermarket. In front of their home. In the suburbs. In the park.

There is no skateboarders.

safe

place

Kids seek an excitement in skate. The goodness of skateboarding. The skateboarding is a serious sport. How to prevent overweight by skateboarding.

29. The writer’s purpose in writing the text is .... A.

to invite the local teenagers to skate in a park built specially for skaters B. to convince the readers that they need a safe place for skaters to skate c. to provoke youngsters into the local government policy D. to promote the writer’s business of skateboarding class E. to inform parents about the goodness of skateboarding 30. What must we do to let the skaters play? A. B. c. D. E.

Join with them anywhere. Give them space in the park. Let them play in the main roads. Let them play in the local street. Build a skate park in the suburbs.

31. They need to practice their 180s, 360s, and Ollie’s free from restrictions. (Paragraph 5) The synonym of the underlined word is ....

28. What is the main idea of paragraph 3? A.

B. c. D. E.

for

A. B. c. D. E.

approval allowance improvement prevention limitation

The following text is for questions 32 to 36. If you get up early in the morning you will see an unusual sight. In city parks and in city streets, lot of boys and girls and men and women are already up and busy. But they are not working or going anywhere. They are exercising. Some are playing football or badminton and some others are jogging. What is jogging? Jogging is a gentle running. Why is jogging so popular today? Why do people jog? People jog to relax themselves, to keep themselves fit, or simply to enjoy themselves. Our world today is a world where life is comfortable and easy for many city people. Fast buses, cars, or motorcycles take us to work or to school. Lifts carry us quickly from one floor to another in large buildings. So many people get very little exercise. What do you need to start jogging? You only need a pair of running shoes, an old pair or jeans or shorts, a sweater, and a little courage. Don’t be embarrassed if you meet your neighbour as you return home, hot and tired. When you begin jogging, start by running some of the way and then walking. Don’t jog too far to begin with and jog slowly. Once you develop a regular jogging programme, you will feel fit and well, and you will be ready to start a busy day feeling fresh and awake. Next time you are at the swimming-pool, look at the people around you, especially those who are over thirty. How many of them have a fat stomach? Now you understand why more people today go jogging or do some other sort of exercises.

32. Which of the following titles is suitable for the text above? A. B. c. D. E.

An Easy and cheap Sports How to Lose Stomach Fat Having comfortable Life Jogging, a gentle running city Parks

33. What will a jogger feel after having a regular jogging programme? A. B. c. D. E. .

Well and fit. Strong and fat. Fat and clumsy. Weak and stressed. Tired and exhausted

34. From the text, we know that .... A.

jogging programme means extra exercise for city people B. jogging will need extra sport equipment to use c. people get many exercises in easy and comfortable life D. jogging can make people relax E. the neighbour will be embarrassing to see us jogging 35. The communicative purpose of the text is .... A. B. c. D. E.

to show the steps of jogging to analyze what jogging is to discuss about jogging to see if jogging works to tell what jogging is

36. “... you will see an unusual sight.” (Paragraph 1)

What is the synonym of the underlined word? A. Strange. B. Popular. c. Regular.

D. E.

common. Traditional.

The following text is for questions 37 to 41. Male chauvinism (men’s believe in male superiority) extends even into the area of automobile driving, it seems. Believing that they are far better drivers than women. Men consider women drivers incompetent, inattentive, and even dangerous behind the wheel. However, statistics prove that women are, in fact, safer drivers than men. For example, insurance rates for women are 20 percent than they are for men. Another proof is that more accidents are caused by male drivers between the ages of 18 and 25 than by any other groups. Also the greater percentage of accident involving deaths is caused by men. Although women are criticized for being too cautious, they are really just being safe drivers. The reason for women driver’s safer driving habits can perhaps be found in the differing attitudes of sexes toward automobiles as a convenience, like a washing machine. On the other hand, men regard the automobile as an extension of their egos. Using it as a weapon when they feel particularly aggressive or using it as a status symbol. In all, women are safer drivers because of their attitude. Men can learn to become safe drivers if they adopt the attitude that an automobile is merely a convenience.

37. The text is about .... A. road accidents B. women attitude towards automobile c. male superiority in automobile driving D. a comparison between men and women drivers E. statistics about the number of road accidents 38. In term of car accidents, the statistic proves that car accidents caused by .... A. B. c. D. E.

men are higher than those of women men are lower than that of women men are as high as that of women women are equal to that of men women are the same as that of men

39. Which of the following you don’t agree with about men drivers? A. B.

They are safe and careful drivers. They cause more accidents than women. c. They consider themselves to be competent drivers. D. They feel that using a car shows status of symbol. E. They regard automobiles as an extension of their egos. 40. We can understand from the text that .... A.

men always criticize women for their bad driving attitude B. women show their by egos by aggressive driving c. the statistic shows women drive the car carelessly

D. young women drivers get many accident E. men underestimate women 41. Men consider women drivers incompetent, inattentive, and even dangerous behind the wheel. (Paragraph 1) The underlined word means .... A. intent B. furious c. watchful

D. E.

careless indiscipline

The following text is for questions 42 to 45. spanish thief saw himself as robin hoodlike bandit Madrid (Reuters) – Spain’s most wanted thief, “The Loner,” saw himself as a Robin Hood-style figure and said he robbed banks only because they stole money from the public, his lawyer said Thursday. Accused of killing three policemen and holding up more than 30 banks, Jaime Jimenez Arbe was planning to move on to insurance companies when he was arrested last month, Spanish media reported, citing lawyer Jose Mariano Trillo- Figueroa. “I am not a killer and if I was obliged to shoot at officers of the law, it was always against my will and in order to avoid being arrested,” Jimenez said in a letter reproduced on the websites of newspapers El Pais and El Mundo. Trillo-Figueroa said Jimenez, who robbed the banks disguised in a false beard and a wig, thinks of himself as curro Jimenez, a Spanish 1970s television bandit in the style of Robin Hood.

The Loner was arrested in Portugal, armed with a submachine gun in preparation for another bank robbery - Reuters. 42. What is the text about? A.

The website of newspaper El Pais and El Mundo. B. Spanish media reporter, Jose Mariano Trillo Figueroa. c. The arresting of Spain’s most wanted thief in Portugal. D. A submachine gun in preparation for another bank robbery. E. A Spanish 1970s television bandit in the style of Robin Hood. 43. Before arrested, Jaime Jimenez arbe ... in Spain. A. had just robbed policemen B. had robbed 30 banks c. would have killed three officers of the law D. had robbed insurance companies E. had been working for companies 44. The reason why “The Loner” robbed banks is because .... A. B.

his lawyer helped him he was the most wanted thief in Spain c. he was accused of killing three policemen D. he believed that the banks stole money from the public E. he saw himself as a Robin Hoodstyle figure

45. “Trillo-Figueroa said Jimenez, who robbed the banks disguised in a false beard and a wig ....” (Paragraph 3) The underlined word disguised means .... A. B. c. D. E.

changed appearance reduced confidence damaged reputation exposed to view made known

The following text is for questions 46 to 50. If was the dawn of science and technology. Anything seemed possible-even the creation of life it self. Victor Frankenstein becomes obsessed with this idea and works relentlessly to prove his theories; but the glory he imagined becomes a living nightmare-not only for him, but for his friends and family too. Mary Shelley’s gothic horror storyFrankenstein-was first published in 1818 and has been the inspiration behind numerous stage productions and films-many of which strayed a long way away from her original masterpiece. classical comics presenting a full-colour graphic novel remains true to this classic tale, bringing the original story to life which has never been created before. This graphic novel is available in two versions: Original Text and Quick Text editions. The Original Text stays faithful to Shelley’s original text, while the Quick Text brings the story up to date by presenting the text into a more simplified style so that the tale is accessible to all readers.

The Quick Text edition will allow you to soak up a general feeling for the characters and locations, while the Original Text version will help you easily slip into the language in which the novel was written. Even if you’re not studying the original, this graphic novel is worth buying. It’s a great story, and should be one that everyone has the chance to read. Now, thanks to this release, even those who don’t particularly like to read too much are given the chance to find this tale and hopefully it may encourage them to search out the original book too. As with previous classical comics, the presentation is first class. The best grade glossy paper really helps to set this graphic novel head and shoulders above the usual comic book releases on the market. Not only that, you also get a pretty comprehensive biography of Shelley; Mary Shelley’s Family Tree; a feature that explains what life was like in the year of the book’s release; and a brief look on how Frankenstein has been adapted to many different formats over the years. 46. The text is about .... A. B.

the quick text and original text of Frankenstein story the simplified text of the updated

horror story c. the horror story written by Frankenstein D. the original text of the author’s novel E. the updated classical horror story 47. The simple way to understand the story is to read ....

49. The original text the of Frankenstein graphic c. recognize different life of storyFrankenstein makes the readers story .... D. have the inspiration putwriting the story to A. understand the styletoof in its a film and drama products era E. remind B. curious the life of Mary Shelley, the author of Frankenstein 50. “ ... many of which strayed a long way away from ....” (Paragraph 2) The underlined word can be replaced with .... A. A. B. B. c. c. D. D. E. E.

wandered the original text changed classic directedcomics the quick text pointed the original book avoided the author’s biography

48. The main idea of the third paragraph is .... A.

Victor Frankenstein wrote his story wit gothic horror style B. there are two versions of the graphic novel to enjoy c. the different versions of Frankenstein story is always an inspiration for drama and film productions. D. the simplified novel has more interesting pictures of readers to understand E. Mary Shelley had two different versions of Frankenstein story adapted for film

about the background of story

historical

UJIAN NASIONAL Tahun Pelajaran 2011/2012

BAHASA INGGRIS lIsTenIng seCTIon In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part. Part I Questions: 1 to 4. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues or questions spoken in English. The questions and the dialogues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. after you listen to the dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers, and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question. You will hear: Boy : We are almost out of cereal. Girl : I know. I will go to the grocery store to buy some more. I will also get some milk, bread and fruit. Boy : Would you get me some instant noodles? Girl : Sure. Narrator : What does the man want the woman to buy? A. Fruit. Sample answer c. Bread. B C D D. Noodles. A E. cereal.

E

The best answer to this question is “Noodles”. Therefore you should choose answer D.

1.

2.

3.

4.

A.

Shopping at a grocery store.

B. c. D. E.

Going to a grocery store. Following directions. Giving directions to the man. Walking down Maple Street.

A.

In the morning.

B. c. D. E.

In the afternoon. In the evening. At noon. At midnight.

a.

expressing hope.

B. c. D. E.

Expressing pride. Expressing satisfaction. Showing happiness. Asking for an apology.

A.

Buying a book.

B. c. D. E.

celebrating a birthday. Getting a beautiful book. Giving a birthday present. Thanking the man for his gift.

Part II Questions: 5 to 7. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some incomplete dialogues spoken in English, followed by four responses, also spoken in English. The dialogues and the responses will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. You have to choose the best response to each question.

Now listen to a sample question. Man : May I taste the caramel pudding you just made? Woman : Of course you may. How does it taste? Man : .... Narrator : What is the most appropriate response for the man to reply? A. It is very expensive, I think. B.

It’s very delicious. I really enjoy the taste.

c. I think I will cook it myself. D. I don’t think I’ll come with you. The best answer to the question “It’s very delicious. I really enjoy the taste.” is choice B. Therefore, you should choose answer B. 5.

Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

6.

Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

7.

Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

Part III Questions: 8 to 11. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues or monologues spoken in English. The dialogues or monologues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you listen to the dialogue or monologue, look at the five pictures provided in your test book, and decide which would be the most suitable one with the dialogue or monologue you have heard.

































Part IV Questions: 12 to 15. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you hear the monologue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. 12. A. B. c. D. E. 13. a. B. c. D. E. 14. A.

Rail services. christmas holiday. Airports. Snowfall. Snowstorm. Two. Three. Four. Five. Six. Snakes.

B. Anacondas. c. Kinds of snakes. D. What an anaconda looks like. E. Another name for an anaconda. 15. A.

10 – 20.

B. C. D. e.

10 – 30 20 – 30. 20 – 40. 30 - 40.

This is the end of the listening section

readIng seCTIon This text is for question 16. Dear Mr. Anwar, We regret to inform you that we are unable to lend you the sum of $500 that you have requested, but it is possible to grant you part of the sum. If you are still interested, please contact our main office to arrange an appointment with the assistant manager. He will be happy to discuss the matter further. Your sincerely (Lending Officer) 16. Instead of a loan $500, what alternative is offered by the officer? A. An appointment to discuss the offer. B. A cash of $500. c. An appointment with the lending officer. D. A loan of less than $500. E. An appointment with the assistant manager. This following text is for questions 17 and 18. ASEAN private companies and its dialogue partner countries are expected to be more actively engaged in the region’s economic integration process, says ASEAN deputy secretary-general Pushpanathan Sundram. “We have provided several channels for aSeaN public officials and private sectors, such as regular consultations and business dialogues with industry associations

and business councils from ASEAN and partner countries,” he said during his presentation at the ASEAN Trade Facilitation Forum in Manado, North Sulawesi, on Saturday. He explained that it was important for ASEAN to pay close attention to responses and feedback from the private sector on the implementation of measures stipulated in the ASEAN Economic community (AEc) blueprint.

18. Which ministers of ASEAN countries most probably attended the ASEAN Trade Facilitation Forum?

The forum was jointly held by the Indonesian Trade Ministry, the US Mission to ASEAN and the US Agency for International Development (USaID) on the sidelines of the 43rd ASEAN Economic Ministers’ Meeting (AEMM). Sundram revealed that despite positive progress of the AEc blueprint measure implementation, several challenges remained in place, such as how to ensure a timely implementation of cutting issues such as coordination at national and regional levels,” he said.

The following text is for questions 19 and 20.

17. How can private companies and public officials from aSeaN countries participate in the region’s economic integration process? A. B.

By participating in ASEAN Trade Facilitation Forum. Through consultations and

dialogues. c. By paying close attention to responses and feedback from private sectors. D. Through intensive partnership with partner countries. E. By considering meetings and conferences.

A. B. c. D. E.

The Ministers of Foreign Affairs. The Finance Ministers. The Tourism Ministers. The Trade Ministers. The Information Ministers.

Call for ProPosals (funded by the european Commission) The ongoing outbreaks of H5N1 Avian Influenza in Indonesia have had a significant impact. Since august 2003, more than 10 million livestock have been affected and the H5N1 virus has crossed the species barrier resulting in at least 135 confirmed human cases with 110 deaths. Moreover, the potential exists for the H5N1 avian influenza virus to trigger a human pandemic. Research on clinical disease, virology and epidemiology of H5N1 in Indonesia is needed to understand the ecology and variability in transmission to human. To foster essential research, WHO requests for proposals that will then be evaluated through a review process. The awards will then be made to competent researchers and institutions focused on research of local scientists and public health professionals. Areas for research include: 1. 2.

Studies of disease ecology, transmission and epidemiology Studies of clinical spectrum and management of disease

Detailed information of call for proposal, include: application and assessment process, assessment criteria and deadline of proposal submission, is attached and available at WHO Indonesia Country Office Web-site. http://www.who.co.id/avian/index.php 19. Who are specifically invited to send research proposals? A.

Scientist and professionals from around the world. B. Indonesian scientists and public health professionals. c. Professional researches in health sciences. D. Health institutions in Indonesia. E. Researchers specializing in H5N1 virus. 20. “… for the H5N1 avian influenza virus to trigger a human pandemic.” (line 7-8) The underlined word is closest in meaning to .... A. B. c. D. E.

to impact to share to increase to immune to cause

The following text is for questions 21 to 22. Once, a cap seller was passing through a jungle. He was dead tired and needed to rest. Then, he stopped and spread a cloth under a tree. He placed his bag full of caps near him and lay down with his cap on his head.

The cap seller had a sound sleep for one hour. When he got up, the first thing he did was to look into his bag. He was startled when he found all his caps were not there. He was wondering where they could have gone. Indeed, he was greatly puzzled. When he looked up the sky, he was very surprised to see monkeys sitting on the branches of a tree, each wearing a cap on his head. They had evidently done it to imitate him. He decided to get his caps back by making a humble request to the monkeys. In return, the monkeys only made faces of him. When he began to make gestures, even when he raised his fist towards them to threaten them, they also imitated him. At last he hit upon a clever idea. “Monkeys are a great imitator,” he thought. So he took off his own cap and threw it down on the ground. As he had expected, all the monkeys took off the caps and threw them down on the ground. Quickly he stood up and collected the caps, put them back into his bag and went away. 21. Why was each monkey wearing a cap on their head? A. B. c. D. E.

They liked them. They liked wearing caps. They were imitating the cap seller. They were teasing the cap seller. They had stolen the caps.

22. What is the moral value of the text? A. Monkeys are clever animals. B. Put your belongings in a safe place. c. Kindness must be possessed by everyone.

D. Foolishness is a source of faulty. E. You have to know who you are talking to.

depths. The water is very clear; you can expect underwater visibility of over 15 meters – ideal condition for divers.

The following text is for questions 23 to 25.

23. The text is about …. A. Kapoposang and the surrounding islands B. Kapoposang as a diving spot c. Kapoposang as a very popular tourist spot. D. Kapoposang as secret area E. Kapoposang and the wather

Kapoposang is one of the largest of the Spermonde Islands, around 70 km northwest of Makassar, South Sulawesi. Kapoposang covers an area of around 50,000 hectares and is inhabited by around 100 families. Several other islands, both inhabited and uninhabited, lie near Kapoposang. The larger ones include Papandangan, Kondongbali, Suranti and Tambakulu. Kapoposang and the nearby islands were declared a Nature Tourism Park by the Department of Forestry in 1999. Diving has been an important activity at Kapoposang. There were so few local divers at the time, and because of the distance from other well-known diving areas in Indonesia, Kapoposang has basically remained a secret. The best time to visit Kapoposang is between April and November, when the seas are calm, the weather favorable, and the wind less fierce than in the other months. The trip takes two hours by speedboat; the ocean breezes help to cool your skin in the hot morning sun. As you approach Pulau Kapoposang, you see the deep blue water, which suddenly meets an expanse of coral reefs between extensive shallows with white sands in the seabed. Sea grass also grows lushly near the shore. The sea bed at Kapoposang has a unique composition; near the island are some quite shallow contours, and then suddenly steep underwater cliffs leading to seemingly endless

24. What is Kapoposang located? A. In the Nature Tourism Park of Makassar. B. Next to Makassar, South Sulawesi. c. In the Spermonde Islands. D. Among the big islands near Makassar. E. Very close, to the north of Spermonde. 25. We know from the text that …. A. there are very few divers in the island B. hundreds of families live in the island c. Kapoposang has a large area of coral reefs D. Kapoposang always has good weather E. Kapoposang is surrounded by deep blue waters

The following text is for questions 26 to 27. PT EUREKA Jl. Jendral Sudirman 112-116 Palembang May 21, 2011 PT Internusa Jl. Gator Subroto Jakarta Dear Sir or Madam; We are interested in becoming a distributor for your software products in Palembang. Would you please send us your latest catalogs, brochures, and terms of agreement? We are a hardware company and eager to add software products to our sales offering. Our animal report is enclosed. We look forward to hearing from you soon. Sincerely yours, Imam Subagio chairman 26. Why did PT. Eureka have a letter to PT. Internusa? A. B.

They are in the sales offering. The distributors like to add them in their offering. c. There are latest catalogue and brochure to be added to the product. D. PT Eureka proposed to become a distributor for PT. Internusa products.

E.

The distributors like to the product send and combine it with other products.

27. We know from the letter that …. A. PT Eureka is a distributor of PT Internusa B. PT Eureka is a successful hardware company c. PT Eureka has not sold software before D. PT Eureka will get the products soon E. PT Eureka will get the answer soon The following text is for questions 28 to 30. Remote sensing is the acquisition of information about an object or phenomenon, without making physical contact with the object. In modern usage, the term generally refers to the use of aerial sensor technology to detect and classify objects on Earth (both on the surface, and in the atmosphere and oceans) by means of propagated signals (e.g. electromagnetic radiation emitted from aircraft or satellites). There are two main types or remote sensing: passive remote sensing and active remote sensing. Passive sensors detect natural radiation that is emitted or reflected by the object or surrounding area being observed. Reflected sunlight is the most common source of radiation measured by passive censors. examples of passive remote sensors include film photography, infra-red, charge-coupled devices, and radiometers. Active collection, on the other hand, emits energy in order to scan objects and areas whereupon a sensor then detects

and measures the radiation that is reflected of backscattered from the target. RADAR and LIDAR are examples of active remote sensing where the time delay between emission and return is measured, stabilizing the location, height, speed and direction of an object, 28. From the text we know that remote sensing …. A.

is a way to obtain information about an object or phenomenon B. does not difficult to do c. makes physical contact with the object. D. does not make use of censors E. does not make use propagated signals

B.

remote sensing is useful for transportation c. we can apply the technology to study animals D. medical science can be improved through remote sensing E. remote sensing make it possible to collect information of an object in a dangerous area The following text is for questions 31 to 32.

29. What is the main idea of the second paragraph? A.

Active sensing is better than passive sensing. B. The energy in sunlight is important for remote sensing. c. Passive sensing is not as strong as active sensing. D. The source of energy radiated for sensing determines whether it is the E.

active or passive type. Active remote sensing and passive remote sensing are equally useful for the development of knowledge and technology.

30. Based on the text we can say that …. A. remote sensing is expensive technology

31. What aspect of the service is promoted in the advertisement of Prime Plaza? A. B. c. D. E.

The personal touch. The hospitality. The relaxing programs. The low price. The friendly welcome.

32. What is the text about? A. The characteristics of tourist-Resorts. B. The promotion of Hotel and Resorts. c. The description of spa and Beauty House.

D. Hotel training for their hospitality. E. Service competition between groups of apartments. The following text is for questions 33 to 35. Being on time is a beautiful social ethic and one of great importance, as it creates efficiency in systems and implies respect for one another. However, it is one the many values that is n ot easy for our students to learn. Inner discipline, one that comes from an understanding of the set rules and regulations, is the highest form of behaviour. Most excellent schools try to instill this with a loving environment. Why, even adults arrive late to meetings, work, etc. Here, we do not agree that late comers should be shut out. They can be given warnings, most of which are enough to make them try their best to reach the school on time later. If this fails, invite their parents to school. By closing the gates, the school is behaving cruelly, to which we prefer not to expose our children. Every school has a responsibility to implant good educational principle, but it should be in appropriate ways. Good schools create competitive students who can organize themselves effectively in society, so that everyone gets a quality life as a result of ethics and values learned for as long as 12 years. children are precious and dependent on the adults for guidance. Understanding them is the key, and to this end, both parents and schools must work hand in hand without playing the blame game.

33. What should the school do if a student can’t stop his/her habit to come late to school? A. B. c. D. E.

Punish him/her. Shut him/her our. Fail him/her. Talk to his/her parents. Try to understand him/her.

34. What does the writer think to be “the highest form of behaviour” (in the second paragraph)? A. B. c. D. E.

Respect for one another. Not being late to school. Understanding the regulations. Understanding the rules. Inner discipline.

35. “Children are precious and dependent on the adults for guidance” The underlined word is closest in meaning to …. A. B. c. D. E.

valuable excellent clever innocent naive

The following text is for numbers 36 to 38. Will solar energy ever be a main source of energy for industrial societies? The solar energy is cheaper than any fossil fuel because we can get the abundant source of energy from the sun. In sunny deserts, the sun’s radiation that reaches the ground can be used to produce electricity for industries and homes. In one of experiment, solar ponds can produce hot water to drive generators.

Unfortunately, we can’t power our homes entirely on sunlight. Solar energy can only be exploited in bright light. Its great potential, therefore, is in countries that have clear skies for most of the year. Most houses, however, are not in the sunniest part of the world. In addition to convert sunlight directly into electricity, solar cells are needed. Although they are very cheap to run, relatively they are expensive to buy and many people can’t afford them. 36. Which of the following can produce hot water to drive generators? A. B. c. D. E.

Solar car. Solar cells. Solar ponds. Solar heating. Solar batteries.

37. Which of the following statements does not agree with the text? A.

Solar energy can only be harnessed in bright sunlight. B. The solar energy is cheaper than any other fossil fuel. c. Solar energy is not-polluted. D. Solar ponds produce hot water to drive generators. E. The main important device to harness the solar energy is cheap. 38. From the text, we know that …. A.

converting solar energy into electricity is expensive B. solar energy generators can be found in most houses c. it is easy to convert solar energy into electricity

D. the potential source of solar energy can only be found in desert areas E. most of people in bright sunny areas use solar energy The text is for questions 39 to 41. A natural disaster is a terrible accident, e.g. a great flood, a big fire or an earthquake. It usually causes great suffering and loss of a large sum of money. The causalities are injured or died. Some people are homeless and need medical care. Floods occur when the water of rivers, lakes, or streams overflow their banks and pour out into the surrounding land. Floods are caused by many different things. Often heavy rainstorms that last for a brief time can cause a flood. But not all heavy storms are followed by flooding. If the surrounding land is flat and can absorb the water, no flooding will occur. If, however, the land is hard and rocky, heavy rain cannot be absorbed. Where the banks are low, a river may overflow and flood adjacent lowland. In many parts of the world floods are caused by tropical storms called hurricanes or typhoons. They bring destructive winds of high speed, torrents of rain, and flooding. When a flood occurs, the destruction to the surrounding land can be severe. Whole villages and towns are sometimes swept away by water pouring swiftly over the land. Railroad tracks and buckles are uprooted from their beds. Highways are washed away. When a building caught fire, the firemen pitched in to help battle the blaze. Before the pumps were invented, people formed bucket brigades to fight fires. Standing side by side,

they formed a human chain from the fire to nearby well or river. They passed buckets of water from hand to hand to be poured on the flames. The damages of fire did depend a great deal on where it happened. In the country or a small village, only a single house might burn down. But in crowded cities, fire often destroyed whole blocks and neighborhoods before being controlled. 39. What can possibly prevent rivers and lakes from overflowing? A. B. c. D. E.

An absorbent bed. A rocky surrounding. A low land. A high bank. A high road.

40. We know from the text that …. a. river can sweep heavy flood B. people can make money from flood C. the destruction by flood is always less severe D. water flood is absorbed by land directly e. Typhoons caused heavy flood 41. We know from the text that …. a.

the pump is the only tool used by fire fighters now B. the pump helps people to fight fires more efficiently C. fires in big cities are always very big D. people no longer use buckets to control fire e. only firemen can control fires in crowded cities

The text is for questions 42 to 44. I, Milton Friedman was born on July 31, 1921, in Brooklyn, N.Y., the fourth and last child and first son of Sarah ethel (Landau) and Jeno Saul Friedman. My parents were born in carpatho-Ruthenia of the Soviet Union. They emigrated to the U.S. in their teens, meeting in New York. When I was a year old, my parents moved to Rahway, N.J., a small town about 20 miles from New York city. I was awarded a competitive scholarship to Rutgers University. I graduated from Rutgers in 1932. I financed the rest of my college expenses by the usual mixture of waiting at tables, clerking in a retail store, occasional entrepreneurial ventures, and summer earnings. Shortly, however, I became interested in economics. In economics, I had the good fortune to be exposed to two remarkable men: Arthur F. Burns and Homer Jones. Arthur Burns shaped my understanding of economic research, introduced me to the highest scientific standards, and became a guiding influence on my subsequent career. Homer Jones introduced me to rigorous economic theory, made economics exciting and relevant, and encouraged me to go on to graduate work. On his recommendation, the chicago Economics Department offered me a tuition scholarship. As it happened, I was also offered a scholarship by Brown University in Applied Mathematics, but, by that time, I had definitely transferred my primary allegiance to economics. In 1976 I won the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economics for my achievements in the fields of consumption analysis, monetary history and theory and for his demonstration of the complexity of stabilization policy. In 1977, at age 65, I retired from the University of chicago after teaching there for 30 years.

42. Who influenced Milton Friedman on economic research? A. B. c. D. E.

Sarah Ethel. Jeno Friedman. Arthur F. Burns. Homer Jones. Alfred Nobel.

43. What is the main idea of paragraph 3? A.

Milton Friedman was very committed in his interest and talent in economics. B. Homer Jones shaped Milton Friedman understanding of economic research. c. Arthur Burns introduced Milton Friedman to rigorous economic theory. D. Brown University offered Milton Friedman a tuition scholarship. E. Milton Friedman was offered a scholarship by the chicago Economics Department in Applied Mathematics. 44. What did Milton Friedman do in financing his college express? A. B.

He was a teacher during summer. He had a job in entrepreneur company. c. He worked as a clerk in a retail store. D. He sold tables to people. E. He taught economics in the university. This text is for questions 45 and 46. ‘laskar Pelangi’: The audacity of hope This is a movie adapted from a best-selling Indonesian novel. It took 40 days of filming on Belitung Island, Bangka-Belitung province.

Involving 12 local actors, it reportedly cost Rp. 8 billion. With all the efforts of transforming Laskar Pelangi (Rainbow Warrior) into a moving picture, will it satisfy readers’ imagination? Laskar Pelangi, the novel, was written by Andrea Hirata in 2005, based on his own experiences. It is about an inspiring teacher and her 10 students in the poverty-stricken Kampung Gantong in Belitung. The poor condition of their school building does not dampen their high spirits and hopes for a better future. Two years later, the novel became a phenomenon in Indonesian literature. With its humanistic touch, Laskar Pelangi has sold more than 500.000 copies and has won the position of Must-Read Novel in every corner of the nation’s bookshops and media review pages. It has finally overcome the domination of teen-lit, chicklit and even religious novels, the popular theme of today. andrea entrusted the filming of the story to the respected figures in the film industry, Mira Lesmana and Riza, as producer and film director. In July 2007, Mira and RIri started the pre-production, which took a year to finish. Together with the scriptwriter Salman Aristo they decided to create a different scenario for the film. 45. What is the main idea of the second paragraph? A.

B.

‘Laskar Pelangi’ is the story of poor people at the Bangka Belitung province. ‘Laskar Pelangi’ is the story of poor school children of the Belitung Island.

c. ‘Laskar Pelangi’ is about poverty in Kampung Gantong in Bangka Belitung. D. ‘Laskar Pelangi’ is about an inspiring story towards a better life. E. ‘Laskar Pelangi’ is about Andrea Hirata.

D. E. 48. A. B. c. D. E.

expedition independence broke bought brought took put

46. From the text above, we know that …. A. B.

the movie was played by poor children Andrea Hirata is the producer of Laskar Pelangi

c. the novel of Laskar Pelangi was a phenomenal work of literature D. people like the movie better than the novel E. people like the novel better than the movie Questions 47 to 49 based on the following cloze test. I recently took a trip to New Hampshire and had what I would call my first genuine (47) … hiking up a mountain. I’ve gone up hiking before but this was without a doubt the best experience of my life. My friend, Sean and Madeline (48) … some pictures during the trip. We need 2 hours straight before we reached the summit. The storm clouds were heading right toward us and you could actually see the rain falling from the cloud. It was like a wall of water moving at an alarmingly (49) … pace ready to engulf us. 47. A.

experience

B. c.

influence experiment

49. A. B. c. D. E.

wide strong long bright fast

50. (1) You can make instant noodles with the help of a microwave. (2) Finally, add any items that you want and serve the noodles. (3) First, fill the bowl with 2 cups of water and the noodle. (4) Microwave it for about three to five minutes. (5) Then, take the noodles out of the microwave and pour the seasonings. (6) After the microwave beeps, wait for three minutes in the closed microwave. (7) Next, stir the noodles until the seasonings dissolve. The best arrangement of the sentences above is …. a. B. C. D. e.

1–7–5–6–2–4–3 1–3–4–6–5–7–2 1–2–7–3–6–5–4 1–4–7–5–2–6–3 1–4–6–5–2–3–7

UJIAN NASIONAL Tahun Pelajaran 2012/2013

BAHASA INGGRIS lIsTenIng seCTIon In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section with special directions for each part. Part I Questions: 1 to 4. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and questions spoken in English. The dialogues and the questions will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. after you listen to the dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question. You will hear: Man : I give up! I’ll stop learning French. Woman : Why do you say that? You are making a lot of progress. Man : No, I’m not. I’ve tried hard but still I cannot speak it well. Woman : How come? You can speak Arabic, Hindi, Japanese and even Russian well, can’t you? Narrator : What language is difficult for the man to learn? A. Hindi. B. Arabic. c. French. A D. Russian. E. Japanese.

Sample answer B

C

D

The best answer to this question is “French”. Therefore, you should choose answer c.

E

1.

A.

Job vacancy.

B. c. D. E.

Job interview. Finding a job. Printing company. Getting a high salary.

2.

A. A novel. B. A comic. c. A magazine. D. A science book. E. An English grammar book.

3.

A. B. c. D. E.

4.

A. B. c. D. E.

The exam is easy. This time will not fly. The exam is in three weeks time. He knows many things about the exam. He still has three days for the exam preparation. She had to go to a doctor. She came to Nisa’s party. She couldn’t make a party. She didn’t go to Nisa’s party. She invited the man to a party.

ParT II Questions: 5 to 7. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some incomplete dialogues spoken in English, followed by four responses, also spoken in English. The dialogues and the responses will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. You have to choose the best response to each question.

Now listen to a sample question. Man : Hey, cindy could you do me a favour? Woman : What can I do for you? Man : Would you mind going to the post office to send my letter? Woman : ... Narrator : What is the woman’s possible response? A. I am all out. Sorry. B. Sure, by all means. c. I love to write letters. D. It’s next to the police station. The best answer to the question is: “Sure, by all means.” Therefore, you should choose answer B. 5.

Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

6.

Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

7.

Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

ParT III Questions: 8 to 11. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues or monologues spoken in English. The dialogues or monologues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you listen to the dialogue or monologue, look at the five pictures provided in your test book, and decide which would be the most suitable one with the dialogue or monologue you have heard.









































ParT IV Questions: 12 to 15. directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you hear the monologue and the questions about it, read the five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answers to the questions you have heard. 12. A. B. c. D. E.

Paris. The Louvre. Notre Dame. The city of light. The crowded city.

13. a. B. c. D. E.

The Louvre. The cathedral. The Eiffel Tower. The lovely garden. The light structure.

14. A. B. c. D. E.

Other beasts. The water. The frogs. A horse. A lake.

15. A. B. c. D. E.

They ate an animal. They lived in a lake. They saw wild horse. They went somewhere. They jumped into water.

This is the end of the listening section. readIng seCTIon The following text is for questions 16 and 17.

Dear all, Hope you’re well and had a great holiday. Sorry for the cross-posting. You could ignore this email if your school does not deliver the IGcSE curriculum. Most of you are aware that cambridge has decided to develop a new qualification for the IGcSE bahasa Indonesia. The development is ongoing and we would like conduct further research to gain more information from schools i.e. expectations, contents etc. therefore, I will be conducting a teacher forum for the bahasa Indonesia teachers (IGcSE level) by next week (I prefer not to do it during Ramadan).

Date

: 19th July, 2012 (Thursday) Time : 7 a.m. – 5 p.m. (lunch and refreshments will be provided) Tentative Venue : Atlet Hotel century Park, Senayan, Jakarta Attendees : bahasa Indonesia teachers from cambridge International Schools I really encourage the participation and appreciate the support from cambridge International schools in Indonesia, particularly in developing this new syllabus. Regards, Faizol University of Examinations

cambridge

International

Postal Address: Unit W-8 – 1, 1st floor, Subang Square, jalan SS 15/4G, 47500 Subang Jaya, Selangor Darul Ehsan, Malaysia UK address (HQ): 1 Hills Road, cambridge, cB1 2EU, United Kingdom

16. Who are expected to attend the forum? A. Bahasa Indonesia teachers in Jakarta. B. cambridge school managers in Indonesia. c. Researchers of bahasa Indonesia education. D. IGcSE Bahasa Indonesia teaching in Jakarta.

E.

Bahasa Indonesia teachers of cambridge International Schools.

17. The forum will be conducted as a part of …. A. the Professional Development Program for Bahasa Indonesia teachers B. cambridge International School teachers’ regular meeting c. cambridge International Examination in Jakarta D. the development of the IGcSE bahasa Indonesia E. the implementation of the IGcSE curriculum The following text is for questions 18 and 19. hotel Work one Month Training Course Suitable young men and women are invited to apply for positions on the one month training course on hotel work organized by the Hong Kong Institute of Hotel Management. Tuition is free of charge and students who successfully complete the course will be offered employment in the colony’s leading hotels. The Training course will take place from Monday 21st July to Friday 22nd august, from 9 a.m. to 4.30 p.m. daily, except Saturday and Sundays. Applications for positions on the course are welcome for students who

are now in their third year at secondary school, have good knowledge of English and have interest in hotel work. Application forms can be obtained at: The Hong Kong Institute of Management, Box 948, The South china Times. The closing date for the application is 29th April. 18. Those who successfully complete the course will be given …. A. free tuition B. a further training course c. jobs in big hotels in the colony D. a chance to stay in the colony’s leading hotels for one month E. a membership of the Hong Kong Institute of Hotel Management 19. What requirement is needed by an applicant to apply for the hotel work training? A. Able to speak Mandarin. B. A secondary school graduate. c. Good knowledge of English. D. A reputable university graduate. E. 2 year experiences in hotel work.

The following text is for questions 20 and 22. Wade Withdraws from Us Basketball Team NEW YORK: Miami Heat guard Dwyane Wade withdrew his name from the player pool for the US Olympic basketball team on Thursday because his injured left knee will require surgery, the USA Basketball said. After receiving the diagnosis from the Heat team physician, the All-Star guard, who helped Miami win the NBa title in five games over the Oklahoma city Thunder, informed USA Basketball chairman Jerry colangelo that he was having the surgery soon and would be unable to compete in London. “As many people may know, throughout the season, I struggled with a recurring knee issue, “Wade said in a statement. “After the championship game, I visited my doctors for a round of comprehensive medical test and the recent result dictated the need for surgery. While every part of me wants to be in London, I need to take this time to do what’s best to improve my health and allow me to continue to play the game I love.” Wade was the US team’s leading scorer in their run 2008 Olympic gold in Beijing, scoring a game-high 27 points as the Americans beat Spain 118-107 in the Olympic final. Despite having his knee drained during the NBA play-off, Wade averaged over 22 points a game during Miami’s championship series triumph over the Thunder.

Wade’s exit from the US squad left 17 players in the mix for 12 spots on The Olympic team following injuries that removed several players from consideration, including Derrick Rose of the chicago Bulls and Dwight Howard of the chicago Bulls. Reuters 20. Why can’t Wade play for US basketball team? A. He is too old to play basketball. B. His injured left knee requires surgery. c. He doesn’t want to compete in London. D. He wants to visit his doctor for a medical test. E. He was removed from the US basketball team. 21. Based on the text, Dwyane Wade …. A. will be a guard in the US Olympic basketball team B. will never play basketball again for the US team c. failed to play in Beijing Olympic Games D. is the most valuable player in the Olympic Games E. was the leading scorer for the US team in Beijing Olympic Games 22. What is the main idea of paragraph 3? A. People know that Dwyane Wade has a problem. B. Dwyane Wade visits his doctors for medical tests. c. The doctors suggested Wade recovers his knee by surgery.

D. Dwyane Wade wants to improve his health to continue the game. E. Dwyane Wade has struggled with his knee problem that he needs surgery. The following text is for questions 23 to 25. WaTer hYBrId sYsTeM, an alTernaTIVe To PeTroleUM Jakarta: cars and motorcycles have longterm effects of destroying the environment by depleting fossil fuel. On top of that, the emissions released from the combustion system of an automobile also cause greenhouse effects. carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide are two greenhouse gases that damage our earth’s atmosphere. They could cause certain vegetation to die off, the snow caps to melt and the Earth’s atmospheric temperature to increase. Reducing the amount of these greenhouse gases will greatly help reduce these effects. That is why we need an alternative for petroleum. Researchers are currently working on environmentally friendly and inexhaustible energy resources: water. They have created a water-hybrid combustion system that converts vehicles to use water as a source of primary fuel. The engine derives fuel from hydrogen and oxygen, generated by the electrolysis of water. The only by-product resulting from the hydrogen and oxygen components of combustion within the engine is water vapour. Therefore, emissions are cleaner with fewer polluting particles, as reported by Jinali Parekh.

The technology existed back in 1805 when a Swiss inventor named Isaac de Rivaz made the first car powered by water. There has been significant development of the technology since then, but recently researchers at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology are working on the use of hydrogen from water as an alternative fuel to drive cars. 23. What does the text tell about? A. The hybrid system of water. B. The technology to create a new fuel. c. The idea of an alternative to petroleum. D. The general knowledge of hybrid system. E. The hybrid system of water as an alternative to petroleum. 24. To help reduce the green house effects, we need to …. A. produce green house gases B. minimize the amount of green house gases c. convert the vehicles to modern ones D. create a new type of fuel e. create significant technology 25. “Reducing the amount of these greenhouse gases ….” (Paragraph 2) The underlined word is closest in meaning to … A. keeping B. allowing c. managing D. decreasing E. converting

The following text is for questions 26 to 28. Victoria caroline Beckham is an English singer-songwriter, dancer, model, actress, fashion designer and businesswoman. She was born on April 17, 1974, in Essex, England. She became famous in the 1990’s with the pop group “The Spice Girls” and was known as Posh Spice. In 1999, she married the Manchester United and England footballer, David Beckham. They have four children, three sons and a daughter. After The Spice Girls split up, she pursued a solo singing career, but also started her own fashion range called dVb Style. Since this initial foray into fashion Victoria Beckham has brought out her own range of sunglasses and fragrance, entitled “intimately Beckham” and a range of handbags and jewelry. In addition she had written two best-selling books: one her autobiography and the other, a fashion guide. 26. What did Victoria do before being a solo singer? A. Married to David Beckham. B. Worked as a fashion designer. c. Joined The Spice Girls. D. created fashion style. E. Wrote many books. 27. We found in the text that …. A. Victoria named her fragrance by dVb style B. Beckham is Victoria’s autobiography c. Beckham is Victoria’s brand for her fragrance

D. Posh Spice is the title of her new album E. Spice girls is Victoria’s label for her wardrobe 28. Based on the text, what do we know about Victoria? A. She is an ordinary woman. B. She is a multi-talented woman. c. She designed The Spice Girls. D. She married to an ordinary person. E. She arranged many songs for The Spice Girls. The following text is for questions 29 to 32. Have we ever wondered how we get chocolate? Well this time we will enter the amazing world of chocolate so we can understand exactly how chocolate is made. chocolate is taken from a tree called cacao tree. This tree grows in equatorial regions, especially in places such as South America, Africa and Indonesia. The cacao tree produces a fruit about the size of a small pine apple. Inside the fruits are the tree’s seeds. They are also known as coco beans. Next, the beans are fermented for about a week, dried in the sun. After that, they are shipped to the chocolate makers. The chocolate makers work by roasting the beans to bring out the flavour. The beans from different places have different qualities and flavour. So, they are often sorted and blended to produce a distinctive mix. The next process is winnowing. The roasted beans are winnowed to remove the

meat nib of the cacao beans from its shell. Then the nibs are blended. The blended nibs are grind to make liquid. The liquid is called chocolate liquor. It tastes bitter. All seed contain some amount of fat and cacao beans are not different. However, cacao beans are half fat. It is pure bitter chocolate. 29. What is the next step after the beans are fermented? A. The beans are blended to produce a distinctive mix. B. The cacaos are shipped to the chocolate maker. c. The beans are roasted to bring out the flavour. D. The cacaos are sorted from different qualities. E. The beans are dried in the sun. 30. The coco beans should be separated in processing because …. A. they can produce a distinctive mix B. they have different qualities and flavour c. they are from different places in the world D. they are about the size of small pine apples E. they came from South America and Indonesia 31. It will be very delicious if a cup of chocolate liquor is added with …. A. dairy product B. warm water c. spring rolls D. sweet stuff E. fruit juice

32. “after that, they are shipped to the chocolate maker” The underlined word has the closest meaning with …. A. purchased B. boarded C. refined D. sailed E. sent The following text is for questions 33 to 35. Faster planes and cheaper flights make it easier for people to travel than ever before. In the most ‘developed’ societies, visiting exotic places is a sought-after status symbol. The tourism industries of both developed and developing countries have recognized this fact and are learning to take advantage of it. There are, however, some problems associated with this new industry. Firstly, there is the increasing crime rate. Some locals see tourists as an easy prey because, they not only are they in unfamiliar territory and therefore less able to take care of themselves, but also they carry visible items of wealth, such as cameras and jewelry which can be disposed quickly for profit. Another major problem is health. The greater mobility comes greater danger of spreading contagious diseases around the world. One carrier returning home could easily start an epidemic before his illness was diagnosed. Moreover, the emergence of many diseases which resist antibiotics is causing scientists to be increasingly concerned about this issue.

Also to be considered is the natural environment, which can be seriously threatened by too many visitors. Australia’s Great Barrier Reef, for example, is in danger of being destroyed by tourists and there are plans to restrict visitors to some of the more delicate coral cays. They are just some reasons why any country should be wary of committing itself to an extensive tourism development program me. 33. Why does the natural environment become one of the serious problems associated with the faster planes and cheaper flights? Because …. A. it easily starts an epidemic before the illness was diagnosed B. it can be destroyed by too many visitors c. the health problem will increase D. they visitor carry visible items of wealth E. it can increase crime rate 34. Why is the crime rate increasing due to the new industry? A. The tourists come by plane. B. Some tourists carry visible items of wealth. c. The tourists are spreading contagious diseases. D. The new industry makes the number of unemployment increase. E. The government is planning to restrict visitors to some coral cays.

35. “One carrier returning home could easily start an epidemic before his illness was diagnosed.” (Paragraph 3) The underlined word means …. A. found B. healed c. observed D. identified E. examined

The following text is for questions 36 to 38. Reading the three plots of Marry Higgins clark in All Through the Night concern a stolen gold ornamental cup, a missing baby and a will which seems to be deceitful. To solve the mystery, she revives her beloved characters; Alvirah the former cleaning woman and Willy Meeham a plumber who won the lottery. They left their life in Jackson Heights, Queens, for an apartment in central Park. The two have fun along the way solving the puzzle. The pace is swift and the story is pure escape – totally fun Mary Higgins clark. I admit, however, that I am still trying to know what melody of the song “All Through the Night” sounds like. This holiday season, put aside your chores and curl up on a couch with All Through the Night. When you close it you will be relaxed and more ready to enjoy the festivities. Then you might just want to tuck a copy into someone’s stocking or gift bag, as well.

36. What is the writer’s suggestion for the holiday season? A. Have fun and solve some puzzles. B. Left your life for an apartment in central Park. c. Put aside your chores and read the novel. D. Tuck a stocking into someone’s gift bag. E. Stole a gold ornament and be deceitful. 37. What intrigues the writer about All Through the Night? A. It made her curl up on couch all day. B. It made her ready for any festivities during holiday. c. She didn’t know the melody of the song in the book. D. She wanted to escape every time she read the book. E. She closed it and got relax. 38. In the first paragraph, the reviewer …. A. introduces the Marry Higgins clark B. analyses the three plots in the story c. mainly discusses about Alvirah D. is solving all of the mystery E. summarizes the characters The following text is for questions 39 to 41. should children be allowed to stay in at break times? A group of children at Willow Tree School feel they should have the right to stay in at break times if they want to. There are a number of impracticalities regarding such a ridiculous

idea but the foolish children appear not to have considered them. Firstly, the children have to be supervised at all times and with children inside and outside this would not be possible. The budget for lunchtime stuff is already being stretched and there is certainly not enough money to employ extra stuff just to satisfy these selfish children. Some of the children are suggesting that the teachers could supervise them if they choose to be indoors at playtime. Are the teachers not working hard enough already? Do they not deserve 50 minutes to reflect on the morning? Do they not use the 50 minutes to prepare for the afternoon? Asking the teachers to supervise the children is beyond their job description. Everybody knows that air is needed to help the brain at its best. In a recent study, Oxford University found that children’s concentrate tripled once they had been outside. If children were allowed to stay cooped up inside all day their concentration would suffer. Of course some people might say it’s unfair to make children go outside on a cold day. However, it has been proven that colds and illness spread in warm conditions. So, being outside is actually beneficial to their health. Plus they can run around and get some exercises outside. children need to go outside at break times. They need fresh air and exercise for their health. Teachers need a break to prepare, reflect and relax. However, the fundamental reason why children cannot stay in at break times is because there is just not enough money to provide supervision.

39. according to the writer, the most important thing to decide whether or not to let children stay in at break times is their . . . . A. concentration B. supervision c. condition D. security E. health 40. The fifth paragraph supports the view that …. A. even on a cold day, children should go outside at break times B. students need fresh air to prevent from colds and illness c. children should run around the school at break times D. it’s unfair to make children go outside on a cold day E. colds and illness are tripled on a cold day 41. The result of a study conducted by Oxford University suggests that . . . . A. studying inside the class has consequences. B. by staying outside students get air for the brain c. children study their best when they do it outside D. students are lack concentration if they play during break times E. the brain works better in class than out of class

The following text is for questions 42 to 44. The respiratory system, in anatomy and physiology, are organs that deliver oxygen to the circulatory system to be transported to all body cells. The respiratory and circulatory system work together to deliver oxygen to cells and remove carbon dioxide in a two-phase process called respiration. The first phase of respiration begins with breathing in or inhalation. Inhalation brings air from outside the body into the lungs. Oxygen in the air moves from the lungs through blood vessels to the heart, which pumps the oxygenrich blood to all the body. Oxygen then moves from the bloodstream into cells, which completes the first phase of respiration. In the cells, oxygen is used in a separate energy-producing process called cellular respiration, which produces carbon dioxide as a by-product. The second phase of respiration begins with the movement of carbon dioxide from the cells to the bloodstream. The bloodstream carries carbon dioxide to the heart, which pumps the carbon dioxide-laden blood to the lungs. In the lungs, breathing out or exhalation removes carbon dioxide from the body, completing the respiration cycle. 42. How does a complete respiration cycle work? A. It delivers oxygen to the cells and removes carbon dioxide from the cells. B. It works apart from respiratory and circulatory system. c. It removes carbon dioxide from the human body.

D. It delivers oxygen to the circulatory system. E. It inhales air from outside the human body 43. The first phase of respiration completes when . . . . A. oxygen changes to carbon dioxide B. the air goes from the lungs to the heart c. carbon dioxide moves to the bloodstream D. oxygen moves from bloodstream to the heart E. oxygen moves from the bloodstream into the cells 44. We know from the text that the respiratory system …… A. is the producer of oxygen and carbon dioxide B. exhales oxygen and inhales carbon dioxide c. inhales oxygen and exhales carbon dioxide D. removes oxygen from the blood stream E. is the processing center of healthy air This following text is for questions 45 and 46. Dear: Valued travellers We’re Proud to be Indonesian Garuda Indonesia is awarded “World’s Best Regional Airline” and “Best Regional Airline in Asia” since April 2010.

By ensuring our passengers enjoy a consistently high level of service with the Garuda Indonesia, experience our uniquely Indonesian style of service, Garuda Indonesia has been recognized as the “World’s Best Regional Airline” & “Best Regional Airline in Asia”. We would like to thank all our passengers and aviation partners for your invaluable support. We are proud to share this award with all of you as the Airline of Indonesia. Garuda Indonesia The Airline of Indonesia 45. What makes Garuda Indonesia ‘World Best Regional Airline?’ A. The passengers. B. The low price. c. The partners. D. The service. E. The pilots. 46. How has Garuda been admitted as the “Best Regional Airline”? A. It has been assuring its passengers. B. It has been very famous since 2010. c. It has been proud to be Indonesian Airline. D. It has always given high level and unique style of service. E. It has appreciated its passengers and aviation partners for their support. 47. Arrange these sentences below into a good paragraph.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(5) (6) a. B. C. D. e.

how to Tie a necktie First of all, start with the wide end on your right. Secondly, cross the wide end over the narrow and back underneath. Then bring the wide end up through the loop. Finally, pull the wide end through the knot in front. Tighten and draw up to collar. Then, bring the wide end up and turn down through the loop. After that, pass the wide end around to the front from your left to right. 1–2–6–5–3–4 1–2–3–4–5–6 1–2–3–5–4–6 1–2–5–3–6–4 1–2–5–6–3–4

The following text is for questions 48 to 50. Complete the following texts with the correct words. The Man and The Monster Once upon a time there lived a young man, named Nazar. He lived a very poor life. One day, Nazar went to town to look for a job. He had to climb up the hill and (48) … a thick jungle to get to a nearest town. Suddenly, he heard (49) … from a bush. When he approached, he found some people gathering around a big tree. Nazar realized that the people were doing against God order. Then he took out a big (50) … axe and planned to cut down the tree.

48. A. B. c. D. E.

checked examined inspected went through hunted through

49. A. B. c. D. E.

movement trembles shadows gestures sounds

50. A. B. c. D. E.

rough sharp edge thick dull

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